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Quiz

1/10
In evaluating the hierarchy of authority in tax law, which of the following carries the greatest authoritative value for tax planning of transactions?
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
Internal Revenue Code.
B.
IRS regulations.
C.
Tax court decisions.
D.
IRS agents' reports. Explanation Note: This question is addressed in your Appendix D text materials. We are confident that our students would be able to respond correctly over 85% of the time without any guidance on this topic. The answer is rather obvious. Just by looking at the answer options, you will immediately notice that

Quiz

2/10
Parker, whose spouse died during the preceding year, has not remarried. Parker maintains a home for a dependent child. What is Parker's most advantageous filing status?
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
Single.
B.
Head of household.
C.
Married filing separately.
D.
Qualifying widow(er) with dependent child. Explanation Choice "d" is correct. A qualifying widow (er) is a taxpayer who may use the joint tax return standard deduction and rates (but not the exemption for the deceased spouse) for each of two taxable years following the year of death of his or her spouse, unless he or she remarries. The surviving spouse must maintain a household that, for the whole entire taxable year, was the principal place of abode of a son, stepson, daughter, or stepdaughter (whether by blood or adoption). The surviving spouse must also be entitled to a dependency exemption for such individual. Parker may file as a qualifying widow (er) since her spouse died in the previous tax year, she did not remarry and she maintained a home for a dependent child. Since, qualifying widow (er) is the most advantageous status and Parker qualifies, Parker would file as a qualifying widow (er). Choice "a" is incorrect. Even though Parker would qualify as single, filing single would give Parker a high tax liability than the qualifying widow (er) status and therefore is not most advantageous. Choice "b" is incorrect. Parker would not qualify as head of household for the first two years after the death of Parker's spouse because one of the requirements for Head of Household status is that the taxpayer is NOT a surviving spouse. (Also, note that the likely reason for this requirement is that filing as Head of Household status would give the qualifying surviving spouse taxpayer a higher tax liability than the Qualifying Widow(er) status, which would be less advantageous.) Choice "c" is incorrect. Parker would not qualify to file married filing separately.

Quiz

3/10
In which of the following situations may taxpayers file as married filing jointly?
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
Taxpayers who were married but lived apart during the year.
B.
Taxpayers who were married but lived under a legal separation agreement at the end of the year.
C.
Taxpayers who were divorced during the year.
D.
Taxpayers who were legally separated but lived together for the entire year. Explanation RULE: In order to file a joint return, the parties must be MARRIED at the end of the year. Exception: If the parties are married but are LEGALLY SEPARATED under the laws of the state in which they reside, they cannot file a joint return (they will file either under the single or head of household filing status). Choice "a" is correct. Per the above rule, taxpayers who are married but lived apart during the year are allowed to file a joint return for the year. The fact that they did not live together during the year has no bearing on the issue. Choice "b" is incorrect. Per the above rule, taxpayers who are married but lived under a legal separation agreement at the end of the year may not file a joint return. They will generally file either under the single or head of household filing status. Choice "c" is incorrect. Per the above rule, taxpayers who were divorced during the year may not file a joint return together, as they are not married at the end of the year. [Note, however, that they may become married again in the year and file a joint return with the new spouse.] Choice "d" is incorrect. Per the above rule, taxpayers who were legally separated but lived together for the entire year may not file a joint return. They will generally file either under the single or head of household filing status.

Quiz

4/10
Barkley owns a vacation cabin that was rented to unrelated parties for 10 days during the year for $2,500. The cabin was used personally by Barkley for three months and left vacant for the rest of the year. Expenses for the cabin were as follows: Real estate taxes $1,000 Maintenance and utilities $2,000 How much rental income (loss) is included in Barkley's adjusted gross income?
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
$0
B.
$500
C.
$(500)
D.
$(1,500) Explanation RULE: If a vacation residence is rented for less than 15 days per year, it is treated as a personal residence. The rental income is excluded from income, and mortgage interest (first or second home) and real estate taxes are allowed as itemized deductions. Depreciation, utilities, and repairs are not deductible. Choice "a" is correct. Applying the rule above, if a vacation residence is rented for less than 15 days per year, it is treated as a personal residence. The rental income ($2,500 in this case) is excluded from income. A Schedule E is not filed for this property (i.e., no income is reported, the taxes are reported as itemized deductions, and the maintenance and utilities are not deductible), so the effect on AGI is zero. Choice "b" is incorrect. This assumes that the property taxes are reported as itemized deductions but that the rental income ($2,500) less the maintenance and utilities ($2,000) are reported net on Schedule E. Per the above RULE, the rental income is excluded from income, and the maintenance and utilities are not deductible. Choice "c" is incorrect. This assumes that all of the items shown are reported net on the Schedule E- $2,500 - $1,000 - $2,000 = ($500). Per the above RULE, the rental income is excluded from income, the maintenance and utilities are not deductible, and the property taxes are reported on Schedule A as an itemized deduction. Choice "d" is incorrect, per the above rule and discussion.

Quiz

5/10
In 19X4, Smith, a divorced person, provided over one half the support for his widowed mother, Ruth, and his son, Clay, both of whom are U.S. citizens. During 19X4, Ruth did not live with Smith. She received $9,000 in Social Security benefits. Clay, a 25 year-old full-time graduate student, and his wife lived with Smith. Clay had no income but filed a joint return for 19X4, owing an additional $500 in taxes on his wife's income. How many exemptions was Smith entitled to claim on his 19X4 tax return?
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
4
B.
3
C.
2
D.
1 Explanation Choice "c" is correct. Smith is entitled to an exemption for himself. He is also entitled to an exemption for his mother Ruth (qualifying relative). Ruth has $9,000 in Social Security payments during 19X4, but since that is her only income, the Social Security is not taxable, and nontaxable income does not count in calculating whether an exemption can be taken for a dependent. Clay cannot be taken as a dependent because he filed a joint return with his wife. Since the joint return was filed for a purpose other than simply claiming a refund, the joint return prevents Smith from claiming an exemption for Clay. An exemption cannot be taken for Clay's wife because she filed a joint return with Clay. Smith is entitled to two exemptions. Choice "a" is incorrect. Clay cannot be taken as a dependent because he filed a joint return with his wife. Since the joint return was filed for a purpose other than simply claiming a refund, the joint return prevents Smith from claiming an exemption for Clay. An exemption cannot be taken for Clay's wife because she filed a joint return with Clay. Choice "b" is incorrect. Clay cannot be taken as a dependent because he filed a joint return with his wife. Since the joint return was filed for a purpose other than simply claiming a refund, the joint return prevents Smith from claiming an exemption for Clay. An exemption cannot be taken for Clay's wife because she filed a joint return with Clay. Choice "d" is incorrect. Smith is entitled to an exemption for his mother, Ruth. Ruth has $9,000 in Social Security payments during 19X4, but because that is her only income, the Social Security income is not taxable, and nontaxable income does not count in calculating whether an exemption can be taken for a dependent. Individual Taxation - Gross Income

Quiz

6/10
Darr, an employee of Sorce C corporation, is not a shareholder. Which of the following would be included in a taxpayer's gross income?
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
Employer-provided medical insurance coverage under a health plan.
B.
A $10,000 gift from the taxpayer's grandparents.
C.
The fair market value of land that the taxpayer inherited from an uncle.
D.
The dividend income on shares of stock that the taxpayer received for services rendered. Explanation Choice "d" is correct. An individual receiving common stock for services rendered must recognize the fair market value as ordinary income. Any dividends received on that stock would also result in income recognition. Choice "a" is incorrect. Employer-provided medical insurance is a tax-free fringe benefit. Choices "b" and "c" are incorrect. Gifts and inheritances are both tax-free to the recipient. (Remember tax is often paid by the person giving the gift or the estate at death.)

Quiz

7/10
Adams owns a second residence that is used for both personal and rental purposes. During 2001, Adams used the second residence for 50 days and rented the residence for 200 days. Which of the following statements is correct?
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
Depreciation may not be deducted on the property under any circumstances.
B.
A rental loss may be deducted if rental-related expenses exceed rental income.
C.
Utilities and maintenance on the property must be divided between personal and rental use.
D.
All mortgage interest and taxes on the property will be deducted to determine the property's net income or loss. Explanation Choice "c" is correct. Because the second property was personally used more than 14 days, any net loss from the rental of the property will be disallowed. All related expenses must be prorated between the personal use portion and the rental activity portion. Prorated depreciation is permitted for the rental activity.

Quiz

8/10
Baum, an unmarried optometrist and sole proprietor of Optics, buys and maintains a supply of eyeglasses and frames to sell in the ordinary course of business. In 1999, Optics had $350,000 in gross business receipts and its year-end inventory was not subject to the uniform capitalization rules. Baum's 1999 adjusted gross income was $90,000 and Baum qualified to itemize deductions. During 1999, Baum recorded the following information: Business expenses: Exam Dumps AICPA-REG AICPA AICPA-REG 2-160888008 What amount should Baum report as 1999 net earnings from self-employment?
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
$243,250
B.
$252,000
C.
$273,000
D.
$281,750 Explanation Choice "d" is correct. Baum should report $281,750 as 1999 net earnings from self-employment (line 12 of the Form 1040), calculated as follows: Exam Dumps AICPA-REG AICPA AICPA-REG 3-2350964052 Choices "a", "b", and "c" are incorrect. Self-employment tax and self-employment health insurance expenses are adjustments from total gross income. They are not deducted from self-employment earnings (i.e., not reported net on line 12 of the Form 1040). Note: There are many distracters in this question, all relating to items that are either deductible as part of itemized deductions or not deductible. Be careful to read the requirement of the question before spending unnecessary time on the question. The statement that Baum's year-end inventory was not subject to the uniform capitalization rules is a distracter as well. There is not enough information given in the facts to apply the rules if he had been subject to them.

Quiz

9/10
On December 1, 1997, Krest, a self-employed cash basis taxpayer, borrowed $200,000 to use in her business. The loan was to be repaid on November 30, 1998. Krest paid the entire interest amount of $24,000 on December 1, 1997. What amount of interest was deductible on Krest's 1997 income tax return?
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
$0
B.
$2,000
C.
$22,000
D.
$24,000 Explanation Choice "b" is correct. Cash basis taxpayers deduct interest in the year paid or the year to which the interest relates, whichever is later. Even though all of the interest on this loan was paid on December 1, 1997, only the interest relating to December 1997 can be deducted in 1997. The question does not give an interest rate, but because the loan is to be repaid in a lump sum at maturity, 1/12 of the interest, or $2,000 applies to each month. Choice "a" is incorrect. Because $2,000 of the interest relates to 1997, this amount is deductible in 1997. Choice "c" is incorrect. This is the amount that cannot be deducted until 1998, the year to which the interest relates. Be sure to read questions like this very carefully, because if you had simply misread the question as seeking the amount deductible in 1998, you would get the question wrong despite understanding the rule. Choice "d" is incorrect. Cash basis taxpayers can deduct interest in the year paid or the year to which the interest relates, whichever is later, thus 11 months of the interest will not be deductible until 1998.

Quiz

10/10
Under the uniform capitalization rules applicable to property acquired for resale, which of the following costs should be capitalized with respect to inventory if no exceptions are met? Exam Dumps AICPA-REG AICPA AICPA-REG 4-2630459478
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
Option A
B.
Option B
C.
Option C
D.
Option D Explanation Choice "d" is correct. Under the uniform capitalization rules, purchasers of inventory for resale may deduct their marketing costs but must capitalize their off-site storage costs. Choices "a", "b", and "c" are incorrect. Marketing costs are deductible, but off-site storage must be capitalized.
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  • Quiz name:AICPA-REG
  • Total number of questions:68
  • Number of questions for the test:50
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